Let me preface this note by stating emphatically that I am an economics novice. But I’m going to take a stab at this problem because it’s crucial for the individual investor. Please let me know if I’ve made glaring errors in the facts. The theoretical definition for intrinsic value = present value of all future cash flows. For this we need the amount and timing of all future cash flows, and the long-term risk-free interest rate. We can assume the long-term risk-free interest rate to be the rate on 10-year Indian government bonds since they’re free from risk of default (the government just needs to turn on the printing press) and the 10-year are reasonably well-traded implying a closer approximation to the actual cost of money. This rate stands at about 8.3% (27 th June, 2011) and can be plugged in our present value calculations. But the other two variables – amount and timing of future cash flows are the difficult items. So, how can we, as individual investors get ...
An Individual Investor's Perspectives On The Indian Financial Markets